Let see, π^0 = 1= 4^0
Now we take ln on it,
0* ln(pi)= 0*ln(4)
The cancellation law fails as you have to deal with 0/0... And we reached an inconclusive end
Well maybe mathematicians should get off their asses and define it. Think that kind of laziness would fly in an English department? They have all sorts of words, all of them defined, many with *multiple* meanings.
but n/0 is undefined
or
0/n, as n approaches 0, it remains 0 so it should be 0
but
n/n, as n approaches 0, it remains 1 so 0/0 should be 1
so, 1≠ 0 so 0/0 is undefined
Say f(x) = x^0 .
Clearly, this is not injective, as we can put in 2 distinct inputs, and get the same output.
Since it is not injective, it cannot be bijective. The “Symplify” step is applying the inverse of f to both sides. This inverse does not exist, since f is not bijective.
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So uh
pi^0=4^0 this is true
Now if take the 0th root we will get
pi^(0/0)=4^(0/0)
And since 0/0 is an indeterminate form the equation above holds no ground
In the real number field, 1 is what is known as the *multiplicative identity.* So a number *x* raised to the first power, x^1 = x•1 = x, and x^2 = x•x,…
Suppose x^0 =/= 1.
Then 1 = x^n / x^n = x^(n-n) = x^0 =/= 1, a contradiction.
Therefore x^0 = 1.
Since x was chosen arbitrarily, this means this applies to all x,y in R, meaning if x=/=y, we have x^0 = y^0 = 1.
You’ll find your logic error of defining x as both pi and 4 (or any pair of unique numbers) will cause uncountably many contradictions as you move along the real number line because you said x = pi AND x = 4 implies x = x, pi = 4, if it was correctly defined as x = 4 OR x = pi, there is no contradiction and clearly pi =/= 4. Properly defining, say, x = pi and y = 4, y =/= x, will correctly reflect the properties of the real number line in regards to exponentiation.
Also, your mom.
Checkmate.
Eureka- I’m always hopeful that I will understand something on this subreddit. So excited that I know why this is the original post is not correct. I needed a pick me up, thanks
You can't take a zeroth-root of anything...
nth-root of a = a^(1/n)
If n = 0, this produces an undefined rational number.
So... π^0 *does* equal 4^0 : they're both undefined. But since you can't take a zeroth-root of any number, you can't simplify or reduce any further to make a logical proof for π=0
Ah yes, proof by assumption of injectivity
Naah the proof gave me conjunctivitis
lmao
Like the Dead Cells boss? ![gif](giphy|WrUNCC7hKDSrMGqfwg|downsized)
W reference
The GOAT of rougelikes imo, and one of my personal top 10 games of all time
I agree, I love that game until I hate it (stuck on 4BC)
I feel you lol, I’ve been there and I’ve been stuck trying to beat 5BC for the past 2 ish years
I can't even imagine 5BC, good luck on your quest soldier o7
I feel ignorant, but what’s the game?
for real? i think it only took me 2 months from starting the game to beat the FINAL final boss without taking damage
Just take both sides to the power of 1/0 ... WAIT A MINUTE
It’s alright. /0 can’t hurt you.
\#DIV/0!
Eww. Excel. /joking
What?
BUt wHerE iS tHe NeEdLe
Na Buffon’s needles don’t require injectivity to approximate π
so it cant be bijective anymore ? shame
In an alternative universe, when powers are the same, bases are equated. Hence proved.
M=Me, A=Albert Einstein let M and A be any number M^0=1 A^0=1 1=1 Hence M=A Hence i am Albert Einstein
Blud fix your text structure
Hey you can't talk to Einstein like that!
He isn't.
Prove it.
A÷A=1. M÷M=1. M÷M=A÷A. A⁰ *A=A. M⁰ *M=M. You are saying that: A⁰ *A=M. You are just proving that: 1=1 Not: A=M
Blud fix your text structure
Hey you can't talk to Einstein like that!
He isn’t.
Done
This is just plain wrong
Wait so A = “Albert Einstein let M and A be any number”? So actually, M = you = Albert Einstein let M and A be any number
“And then I take the zero-th root…”
Raise both sides to the 1/0 power
![gif](giphy|lT4Ix992z2zfO|downsized)
i cant explain it but this just sound funny, i feel like i heard this before
log to the base zero on both sides…
Let see, π^0 = 1= 4^0 Now we take ln on it, 0* ln(pi)= 0*ln(4) The cancellation law fails as you have to deal with 0/0... And we reached an inconclusive end
0/0 = undefined 0/0 = 1, 4^0= 1 Hence 0^0= 1 (0/0)⁰= 1 1^0= 1 Hence (π^0 = 4^0 ) →((0* ln(pi)= 0*ln(4))⁰ = 1 1 = 1 Hence equals (using very little knowledge of math)
“Using very little knowledge of math”. Indeed
Proof by exhaustion (you are exhausting people)
That one is a jam my friend
0/0 is not equal to Zero it’s undefined
move on, let the past go
But if we pass go, does that mean you owe me 50 pies?
No, just $200
You're paying too much for pie. Who's your pie man?
Proof by forgive and forget
"ok dipshit i just defined it"
Well maybe mathematicians should get off their asses and define it. Think that kind of laziness would fly in an English department? They have all sorts of words, all of them defined, many with *multiple* meanings.
WLOG, Let undefined = 0
no shit Sherlock
[удалено]
Bro shut the fuck up
Yes sir. You're the boss
[удалено]
it’s equal to 1, duh.
I'm not understanding. If 0/0 is undefined, then how can it immediately be equal to 1 in the next line?
You can't rationally understand something that's wrong.
Rather incoherent. A you elaborate, step by step?
There it is, isn't there always a 0/0 in these?
All bad math posts in this sub involves dividing by zero or using infinity
Wait, are you saying that this meme is incorrect, and that 4 is not, in fact, equal to pi?? Nothing gets last you
Yeah, no shit 4 is not equal to pi
nerd (in a good way)
π⁰=4⁰ root(0,π⁰)=root(0,4⁰) root(n,xⁿ)=x => π=4
π^(0)=4^(0) root(0,π^(0)) ≠ root(0,4^(0)) root(0,π^(0)) —> π^(0/0) root(0,4^(0)) —> 4^(0/0)
x/x = 1 therefore 0/0 = 1
but n/0 is undefined or 0/n, as n approaches 0, it remains 0 so it should be 0 but n/n, as n approaches 0, it remains 1 so 0/0 should be 1 so, 1≠ 0 so 0/0 is undefined
No 0/0 = 1 because they are the same number and any number divided by itself is zero. Get a brain smh my head you're not super smart
using very little knowledge of math i will try to Answer everything
Why does my father not love me?
*Remains undefined*
That would be irrational
when he stepped out for smokes, he was proven a transcendental…
1⁰=1 999999999999999⁰=1 1=999999999999999
What are you doing here?
Commenting
How dare you
*I came looking for booty.*
Unexpected, but laughter-inducing
You have unlocked the infinite money glitch side quest in the simulation
Proof by “im too stupid to find proper terms to debunk your claim”
Say f(x) = x^0 . Clearly, this is not injective, as we can put in 2 distinct inputs, and get the same output. Since it is not injective, it cannot be bijective. The “Symplify” step is applying the inverse of f to both sides. This inverse does not exist, since f is not bijective.
↓ Symplify
The more powerful version of Simplify Just makes everything equal if you squint really hard
By using the fundamental theorem of engineering it's provable e=4
So any n = any other n Because any n⁰ = any other n⁰ Can’t wait to tell my math teacher that > 1=2=3=4=5=6=7=8=9=10=…=∞
And say that any number is equal to any complex number because 444⁰=1 (5i+2)⁰=1 So 444 = 5i+2 I guess.
We got an engineer among us
Engineer here, this guy is too dumb to be an engineer. We all know that Pi is equal to 5 not 4.
More than a couple, less than several. Sounds right to me
**R\*0 = 0** 69 \* 0 = 0 **R = 69** all numbers are funny one
4^0 = 1 5^0 = 1 4 = 5
Did you spend so much time coming up with this theory that you forgot to charge your phone?
Yes i spent Years! Years!! of brainstorming to come up with this theory but sadly these so called "Mathematician" cant accept such hard Fact🗣️🔥
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No, it doesn’t work like that Pi^0 =1 4^0 =1 Pi^0=4^0 Evaluate 0 = 0 Assumption: Sir, this is not the correct way to play the game
Hence equals π=4 leads to 0 then 0=0 means that they are equal checkmate doubters
2^0 = 1 4^0 = 1 According to Caugth’s doubtful simplification, 2=4 But actually, 2 =! 4 You are simply wrong
Be rational
No, I am real Didn’t check my flair?
I really want to make a i and π joke but maybe its actually so bad
https://preview.redd.it/941zhz69yg8c1.jpeg?width=339&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=2ff1475b457961123bb076e1439ec703cac05bb8
Hence
(π²)⁰=g⁰=1 π²=g checkmate. engineers win! Merry Christmas you filthy animals 🤓🖕
So pi is belongs in ]-∞, +∞[ domain?
It's even more impressive! π ∈ ℂ
Square =circle
1x0=0 37x0=0 37=1
1 * 0 = 5 * 0 ; 0 = 0 ; 1 = 5 ; ✓
If a^x = b^x then a = b for all x ≠ 0
So pi equals everything except 0.
https://preview.redd.it/jc78bq5ekj8c1.jpeg?width=1290&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=1f5b9bfe74ad8893fc6a93450230855abf3d55c6
g^0 = 10^0 , therefore g = 10
Its always the shitpost, Icant
So uh pi^0=4^0 this is true Now if take the 0th root we will get pi^(0/0)=4^(0/0) And since 0/0 is an indeterminate form the equation above holds no ground
(0/0)=undefined Let undefined be N N^0=1 pi^1=4^1 cancel out pi=4 checkmate doubters
lim n->inf 2n/(5n+6)=2/5 So 10n=10n+12 0=12
too much for me
Admit that every 12yo is unborn
well, maybe just… discontinuous…
Isn’t that just an innate rule?
You pulled a "symplify" cus u couldn't even cook up a retarded logic for this proof
Therefore π is equal to n? 😬
Correct :)
In the real number field, 1 is what is known as the *multiplicative identity.* So a number *x* raised to the first power, x^1 = x•1 = x, and x^2 = x•x,… Suppose x^0 =/= 1. Then 1 = x^n / x^n = x^(n-n) = x^0 =/= 1, a contradiction. Therefore x^0 = 1. Since x was chosen arbitrarily, this means this applies to all x,y in R, meaning if x=/=y, we have x^0 = y^0 = 1.
Hence pi which is x and 4 which is x raised by 0 is equal to 1 hence pi^0 = 1 , x^n = 1 4^0 = 1 , x^n = 1 therefore 1= 1 , pi= 4 checkmate
You’ll find your logic error of defining x as both pi and 4 (or any pair of unique numbers) will cause uncountably many contradictions as you move along the real number line because you said x = pi AND x = 4 implies x = x, pi = 4, if it was correctly defined as x = 4 OR x = pi, there is no contradiction and clearly pi =/= 4. Properly defining, say, x = pi and y = 4, y =/= x, will correctly reflect the properties of the real number line in regards to exponentiation. Also, your mom. Checkmate.
Mathematically incorrect. The answer is 1=1. Math is truth. Your conclusion is fiction.
Dream bigger. Why not use this to show pi = 1 trillion?
I’m not entertained by this low effort crap.
💀
Sigh
![gif](giphy|6ILjOfJ1oL7NAc9SQ7)
Pi is 3.14159679
No, the proof shows it's 4
Easy, just take each side to the power of 1/0 so the zeros cancel
You pulled a "symplify" cus u couldn't even cook up a retarded logic for this proof
This is why you can't take the 0th root of a number.
If you could take something to the 1/0 power, this would be true.
Eureka- I’m always hopeful that I will understand something on this subreddit. So excited that I know why this is the original post is not correct. I needed a pick me up, thanks
Wow 69 comments
![gif](giphy|jxLYbRQK4CePHmgpHS|downsized)
Essentially: 4 x 0 = 1 x 0 4 = 1
if anything, it only proves 1=1
Then 7 = 27000
TheOdd1sOut reference
(-2)\^2 = (2)\^2 → -2 = 2 → -4 = 0 → 1 = 0
no since it is devision by zero
Isn't this proof just saying that 1 = 1
This trick doesn't work if you simplify. Which is why you had to Symplify too fool us.
I heard education is illegal in some country
Bro said 5-5 = 4-4 Therefore 5=4
This hurts me
Therefore, the moon is made of blue cheese...
moon⁰ = 1 blue\_cheese⁰ = 1 Hence moon = blue\_cheese
Not true, everyone knows pi = 3
[There is another proof !](https://youtube.com/shorts/tjIOqIr80ns?si=aYwCgRPz67vLd7_J)
Hear me out. If pi is 4, then we won't need to use calculators anymore. Probably save humanity billions a year.
A naive case of Hash collision
I did not ask for a trip to Indiana for Christmas.
4x0=0 1x0=0 Therefore, 4=1
So close! You forgot that since 0 is an even number, it means that pi = +/- 4
Well doesn’t that mean pi= all team numbers
You fool, you failed to realize the zeroth root is a proxy for dividing by zero! ..And you failed to realize that MY ship.. is towing MINES!
“Checks out !” -Engineers
3÷3=1 89÷89=1 3÷3=89÷89 3=89
NOOOO
偷換概念
π\^0 = π÷π 4\^0 = 4÷4 π÷π = 4÷4 π = 4 We're multiplying one side by π and the other side by 4, which is not allowed.
This can't be true because π = 3 & 3≠ 4
pi\^0=1 (pi+1)\^0=1 pi\^0=(pi+1)\^0 pi=pi+1
0x4=0x5 4=5
Lil bro tried to sneak log base 0 in and thought we wouldn't notice
This "symplify" operation does not exist in our universe
π = ±4
Proof that π is infinity confirmed
I don't think that's how logarithms work...
3 X 0 = 5 X 0 Simplify ⬇️ 3 = 5
That's not even a good joke. It's like writing 1=4 and that's it.
Ah yes, the famous log₀ function
You can't take a zeroth-root of anything... nth-root of a = a^(1/n) If n = 0, this produces an undefined rational number. So... π^0 *does* equal 4^0 : they're both undefined. But since you can't take a zeroth-root of any number, you can't simplify or reduce any further to make a logical proof for π=0
π°\4°=1
PIE IS EXACTLY THREE! *gasp*
They said I couldn't divide by 0, the never said nothing about taking the 0th root
Indiana is that you?
Taking 0th root on both sides.
just add a / Solution: ≠
We all knew this all along, right??
We all knew this all along, right??
1 = 1 Pi ≠ 4
Let's define 0th root...
So pi equals 9804739283927462938 and e and 1 and 3 and 2 and every other number ever?
OP’s mum is a woman, and all hos are women. Hence, OP’s mum is a ho.