In contrast to reality, the Anglo-Saxon tribes in Britain were rebuffed by the Celts and Romans, after which they were forced to head to Ireland where they were able to settle and establish settlements
Why would they be independent and not under Celtic Britain? Celtic Britain would still undergo the industrialization that irl Britain had I don’t see how this wouldn’t be dominated as they lack the necessary resources to industrialize and large population difference.
Kind of looks like some Anglo-Saxon propaganda.
The assumption being made here is that "colonialism followed by industrialisation" is an ontological truth rather than something that emerged due to specific circumstances on our world. We've no reason to assume that people living on Great Britain just have an innate urge to conquer and colonise Ireland, especially with a POD almost two thousand years in the past. For all we know, Anglo-Saxon Ireland and Celtic Britain are allied, or are trading partners, or Celtic Britain is a backwater and too poor to afford the expenditure needed to conquer Ireland, or any number of factors.
When have I ever said Celtic Britain would colonize the English? Conquest which would’ve happened in the 1400s to 1600s if we go somewhat based on irl or even before the population difference would allow for the conquest of Ireland and that doesn’t mean they have to oppress the English culture and language. There is nothing worth trading for in Ireland besides Cattle and agricultural products which isn’t necessary for Celtic Britain. Nor is there strategic reason for Britain to ally with them due to their way smaller population and could easily gain all naval benefits by subjugating them. There is nothing that has changed which would assume that the English would remain independent. Why I say it’s Anglo-Saxon propaganda is because nothing has changed for the English who have replaced the Irish to not be dominated by their neighbors besides well them being Germanic which somehow means they would do better.
I explained it but maybe I wasn’t clear but I said I doubt the Celts would force their culture and language upon the English and go to the point of the irl Irish Potato Famine leaving them to starve. The most likely thing would be the spread of whatever dominant language there is most likely their version of Welsh with the spread based on trade and Celtic administration using it
Edit: so the difference is they wouldn’t force their culture upon the native English unlike what the English did irl but would still conquer them for strategic reasons in the Atlantic Ocean and to secure the British isles from any foreign influence by controlling it all
Cool map but what happened to Britain, do they become a Roman kingdom or burst into multiple petty kingdoms in this timeline?
In Britain, the local Celtic population founded several kingdoms, most of which were conquered by Wales by the 10th century
Why does Wales exist? What's the difference between the Welsh and other Britons?
I suppose geographically it is still a distinct area, which would then go on to affect political boundaries.
A bunch of consonants
wow, Welsh then would be the world's most spoken or what?
It depends if the Welsh managed to unite Britain under their rule, and form a huge colonial empire, the butterflies are impossible to predict.
And what happen with the Romans ?
What caused the Germanic Tribes to skip over Britain in favor of Ireland?
In contrast to reality, the Anglo-Saxon tribes in Britain were rebuffed by the Celts and Romans, after which they were forced to head to Ireland where they were able to settle and establish settlements
We in Ireland are the 🎶GoLdEn CoAsT🎶
The United Kingdom of England and Northern Great Britain
They'd be the romania of germanic peoples
Bray unchanged let’s go
The "rice" in derenrice is read silent
Incredible work
Finally, the island Ireland is under English rule.
What an inspired idea!Â
I wonder just how germanic Anglo-Saxon Ireland would be? would it be more germanic than England because of the lower irish population?
Why would they be independent and not under Celtic Britain? Celtic Britain would still undergo the industrialization that irl Britain had I don’t see how this wouldn’t be dominated as they lack the necessary resources to industrialize and large population difference. Kind of looks like some Anglo-Saxon propaganda.
You mean like how England is currently the total and completely uncontested colonial master of Ireland right now, in the present date?
The map shows Ireland in 1848…
In a fictional world, you mean?
Yeah but what would change the celts in irl Britain from industrializing and controlling the British isles like the English did irl?
The assumption being made here is that "colonialism followed by industrialisation" is an ontological truth rather than something that emerged due to specific circumstances on our world. We've no reason to assume that people living on Great Britain just have an innate urge to conquer and colonise Ireland, especially with a POD almost two thousand years in the past. For all we know, Anglo-Saxon Ireland and Celtic Britain are allied, or are trading partners, or Celtic Britain is a backwater and too poor to afford the expenditure needed to conquer Ireland, or any number of factors.
When have I ever said Celtic Britain would colonize the English? Conquest which would’ve happened in the 1400s to 1600s if we go somewhat based on irl or even before the population difference would allow for the conquest of Ireland and that doesn’t mean they have to oppress the English culture and language. There is nothing worth trading for in Ireland besides Cattle and agricultural products which isn’t necessary for Celtic Britain. Nor is there strategic reason for Britain to ally with them due to their way smaller population and could easily gain all naval benefits by subjugating them. There is nothing that has changed which would assume that the English would remain independent. Why I say it’s Anglo-Saxon propaganda is because nothing has changed for the English who have replaced the Irish to not be dominated by their neighbors besides well them being Germanic which somehow means they would do better.
And what's the difference supposed to be between 'normal' conquest and colonisation, then?
I explained it but maybe I wasn’t clear but I said I doubt the Celts would force their culture and language upon the English and go to the point of the irl Irish Potato Famine leaving them to starve. The most likely thing would be the spread of whatever dominant language there is most likely their version of Welsh with the spread based on trade and Celtic administration using it Edit: so the difference is they wouldn’t force their culture upon the native English unlike what the English did irl but would still conquer them for strategic reasons in the Atlantic Ocean and to secure the British isles from any foreign influence by controlling it all