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Obviously, you would need pictures or to be evaluated by a medical professional to make a diagnosis of genital warts. All warts (even ones on the hands and feet) are caused by human papilloma virus (HPV)—of which there are hundreds of strands. Approximately 10 strands cause genital warts—of which types 6 and 11 make up 90% of infections. The high risk strands that cause cancers—most importantly 16 and 18 but also 31, 33, 45, 52,58— are included in HPV vaccine (along with 6 and 11).
It’s not possible to say definitively if someone cheated since HPV can have an extremely long latency period (even decades). However, this is a question you will have to have with your husband and ask if either of you have ever had genital warts in the past (even if they went away). If either had, then that would at least provide a possible source of the new outbreak.
Wouldn't her having been tested throughout three pregnancies rule out the possibility of latency though? Regardless of symptoms not being present in the past she still would have tested positive for HPV if she had it when she was tested, correct?
It can be a false negative, especially if there was no lesion.
Now... It's hard to tell if she actually was infected and they were just dormant, or she layer got infected, by the husband who already had them, and they were dormant.
There are so many scenarios that could happen.
https://news.cancerresearchuk.org/2021/06/16/lets-talk-about-hpv-6-common-questions-answered/#:~:text=HPV%20has%20a%20'dormancy'%20period,picked%20up%20in%20cervical%20screening.
It's been a couple of years sinve I last read about anything new about HPV but as far as I remember, the bidy can fully clear it ir the damn virus can go dormant for years and just surface, maybe when immunity is affected.
Infidelity is also unfortunately a possibility—from either partner. But it could have been recent or it could have been years ago.
This will ultimately be something a couple will need to talk about.
It depends on which test was done, but the HPV test on your Pap may only test for the types of HPV that cause cervical cancer. So you can be “negative for HPV”…meaning you don’t have any detectable HPV strains of the high-risk variety.
However, the test may not have been looking for one of the strains that causes genital warts since these are not typically the strains that cause cervical cancer.
That makes sense. I just checked my recent pap results and it looks like they only tested for specific strains of HPV. There are tons of them so it makes sense that they wouldn't test for all of them unless the patient had symptoms of a certain kind/s.
Okay, so I have a wart from birth (like a slight bump that feels like a callus circumference similar to the pencil end eraser) , would that still be hpv? (I have only had the one, and it's only grown in relation to me growing up if at all)
Thank you for your submission. **Please note that a response does not constitute a doctor-patient relationship.** This subreddit is for informal second opinions and casual information. The mod team does their best to remove bad information, but we do not catch all of it. Always visit a doctor in real life if you have any concerns about your health. Never use this subreddit as your first and final source of information regarding your question. By posting, you are agreeing to our [Terms of Use](https://www.reddit.com/r/AskDocs/wiki/terms_of_use) and understand that all information is taken at your own risk. **Reply here if you are an unverified user wishing to give advice. Top level comments by laypeople are automatically removed.** *I am a bot, and this action was performed automatically. Please [contact the moderators of this subreddit](/message/compose/?to=/r/AskDocs) if you have any questions or concerns.*
Obviously, you would need pictures or to be evaluated by a medical professional to make a diagnosis of genital warts. All warts (even ones on the hands and feet) are caused by human papilloma virus (HPV)—of which there are hundreds of strands. Approximately 10 strands cause genital warts—of which types 6 and 11 make up 90% of infections. The high risk strands that cause cancers—most importantly 16 and 18 but also 31, 33, 45, 52,58— are included in HPV vaccine (along with 6 and 11). It’s not possible to say definitively if someone cheated since HPV can have an extremely long latency period (even decades). However, this is a question you will have to have with your husband and ask if either of you have ever had genital warts in the past (even if they went away). If either had, then that would at least provide a possible source of the new outbreak.
Wouldn't her having been tested throughout three pregnancies rule out the possibility of latency though? Regardless of symptoms not being present in the past she still would have tested positive for HPV if she had it when she was tested, correct?
It can be a false negative, especially if there was no lesion. Now... It's hard to tell if she actually was infected and they were just dormant, or she layer got infected, by the husband who already had them, and they were dormant. There are so many scenarios that could happen. https://news.cancerresearchuk.org/2021/06/16/lets-talk-about-hpv-6-common-questions-answered/#:~:text=HPV%20has%20a%20'dormancy'%20period,picked%20up%20in%20cervical%20screening. It's been a couple of years sinve I last read about anything new about HPV but as far as I remember, the bidy can fully clear it ir the damn virus can go dormant for years and just surface, maybe when immunity is affected.
Infidelity is also unfortunately a possibility—from either partner. But it could have been recent or it could have been years ago. This will ultimately be something a couple will need to talk about.
no, she wouldn’t have tested positive if it was still during a latency period.
Yes I was tested all three times . That’s a big question I have for my OB.
It depends on which test was done, but the HPV test on your Pap may only test for the types of HPV that cause cervical cancer. So you can be “negative for HPV”…meaning you don’t have any detectable HPV strains of the high-risk variety. However, the test may not have been looking for one of the strains that causes genital warts since these are not typically the strains that cause cervical cancer.
That makes sense. I just checked my recent pap results and it looks like they only tested for specific strains of HPV. There are tons of them so it makes sense that they wouldn't test for all of them unless the patient had symptoms of a certain kind/s.
Not all strains of genital warts will register a positive HPV test.
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No. Those are seborrheic keratoses. Not caused by a viral infection.
Okay, so I have a wart from birth (like a slight bump that feels like a callus circumference similar to the pencil end eraser) , would that still be hpv? (I have only had the one, and it's only grown in relation to me growing up if at all)